[220] Jer. xxiii. 5.
[221] Hitzig (among others) held that it is the prophets who are the speakers of ver. 1, and that the voices of the penitent people come in only with ver. 2 or ver. 3. In that case מועתינוש would mean _what we heard from God_ (מועהש is elsewhere used for the prophetic message) and delivered to the people. This interpretation multiplies the dramatis personæ, but does not materially alter the meaning, of the prophecy. It merely changes part of the penitent people's self-reproach into a reproach cast on them by their prophets. But there is no real reason for introducing the prophets as the speakers of ver. 1.
[222] For the argument that it is Israel who speaks here, see Hoffmann (_Schriftbeweis_), who was converted from the other view, and Dillmann, 4th ed., _in loco_. A very ingenious attempt has been made by Giesebrecht (_Beiträge zur Jesaia Kritik_, 1890, p. 146 ff.), in favour of the interpretation that the heathen are the speakers. His reasons are these: 1. It is the heathen who are spoken of in lii. 13-15, and a change to Israel would be too sudden. Answer: The heathen are not exclusively spoken of in lii. 13-15; but if they were a change in the next verse to Israel would not be more rapid than some already made by the prophet. 2. The words in liii. 1 suit the heathen. They have already received the news of the exaltation of the Servant, which in lii. 15 was promised them. This is the שמועתינו, that is _news we have just heard_. האמין is a pluperfect of the subjunctive mood: _Who could_ or who _would have believed_ this news of the exaltation _we have_ just _heard, and the arm of Jehovah to whom was it revealed_! _i.e._, it was revealed to nobody. Answer: besides the precariousness of taking האמין as a pluperfect subjunctive, this interpretation is opposed to the general effort of the prophecy, which is to expose unbelief before the exaltation, not after it. 3. To get rid of the argument--that, while the speakers own that the Servant bears their sins, it is said the Servant was stricken for the sins of _my people_, and that therefore the speakers must be the same as "my people":--Giesebrecht would utterly alter the reading of ver. 8 from למו ננע עמו מפשע, _for the transgression of my people was the stroke to him_ to יְנֻנַּע מִפִּשְׁעָם, _for their stroke was he smitten_.
[223] נשׂא and סבל. In speaking of his country's woes, Jeremiah (x. 19) says: _This is sickness_, or _my sickness, and I must bear it_, חלי זה ואשׂאני. Ezekiel (iv. 4) is commanded to lie on his side, and in that symbolic position to _bear the iniquity of His people_, עונם תשא. One of the Lamentations (v. 7) complains: _Our fathers have sinned and are not, and we bear_ (סבל) _their iniquities._ In these cases the meaning of both נשא and סבל is simply to feel the weight of, be involved in. The verbs do not convey the sense of _carrying off_ or _expiating_. But still it had been said of the Servant that in his suffering he would be practical and prosper; so that when we now hear that he bears his people's sins, we are ready to understand that he does not do this for the mere sake of sharing them, but for a practical purpose, which, of course, can only be their removal. There is, therefore, no need to quarrel with the interpretation of ver. 4, that the Servant _carries away_ the suffering with which he is laden. Matthew makes this interpretation (viii. 17) in speaking of Christ's healing. But it is a very interesting fact, and not without light upon the free and plastic way in which the New Testament quotes from the Old, that Matthew has ignored the original and literal meaning of the quotation, which is that the Servant shared the sicknesses of the people: a sense impossible in the case for which the Evangelist uses the words.